Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 06:19
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why has my ex moved on so fast after years of being together with me?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why does the God of the Bible condemn homosexual acts?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
How is bestiality wrong, but killing animals for sport or trophies is considered okay?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.